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1 - 6 / 6 2013-08-09Elisa Freschi
Institute for Cultural and Intellectual History of Asia
Methodologically speaking, I wonder why Matilal and S's article has not been enough for further studies of this sort to be the rule on Mind (and other philosophical journals). Does this failure depend on their style? (Or should we just start working as a task-force and submit many articles of this kind?)Latest replies:
- Sigurd Vojnov, 2013-08-22 : Id like to read more_ in here_ about "the context principle". I tried your link but I couldnt get access.Meani... (read more)
- Elisa Freschi, 2013-08-22 : Thanks for the nice example, which highlights a lot about the pragmatics of speech-acts (even more, I would say, than ab... (read more)
- Sigurd Vojnov, 2013-09-10 : Try not restricting ideas by their versions;&Understand objects in "isolation" as constituted by their constit... (read more)
Institute for Cultural and Intellectual History of Asia
Can there be linguistics without ontology?
The context principle and some Indian controversies over Meaning is a milestone in Indian studies, and in the history of their interaction with mainstream (i.e. Western) philosophy. Since it was published in 1988 on Mind (one of the top-5 journals in Philosophy, inaccessible for most authors), virtually everyone (in Indian philosophy) has read it.
Have you also re-read it?
I re-read it after some years this Summer and I have to admit that it was again a surprise. The article starts with a discussion of the Context principle in Frege and Quine (does the principle mean that words HAVE no meaning outside a sentence, or that their meaning can only be UNDERSTOOD within a sentence?). In this connection, Matilal and Sen discuss a strong and a weak interpretation of the Context principle (according to whether it should answer the first or the second question). They end up saying that the strong interpretation clashes with Frege's later work (see belo ... (read more)Latest replies:
- Franson Manjali, 2013-08-22 : Interesting... We get back to this.
- Wayne G. Smith, 2014-08-04 : I regret that I've just discovered this post: Is Derrida's (admittedly 'Western') deconstruction and his... (read more)
- Elisa Freschi, 2016-01-23 : sorry for noticing this reply just now! Matilal and Sen are rigorously analytical philosophers. In this sense, I would n... (read more)
2013-03-04I did my dissertation, in philosophy of education, on Royce and the problem of religious inclusion in public education. I think Royce is a fascinating figure in American Philosophy, that is of continuing importance today. Do you agree or disagree? I would like to know of anything anyone is doing related to his work in this forum.Latest replies:
- Eric-v.-d. Luft, 2013-03-12 : Agree 100%. I've published a book review and an encyclopedia (real, print, not Wikipedia) article on Royce and have... (read more)
- David Kester, 2013-03-12 : Good to hear from you Eric! I felt kind of ironic being the "lone Individual" in support of Royce! I looked on... (read more)
- Vernon Kooy, 2013-03-12 : I too find Royce interesting. There is something about a man born in a mining camp of not so well off parents who... (read more)
- David Kester, 2013-03-12 : I like his biography as well. I particularly like the story of Royce showing up for a party in his only threadbare suit... (read more)
University of Illinois, ChicagoEveryone who has dipped into Nietzsche has heard about his "Will to Power", however it is interpreted by philosophers in many different ways and there seems to me, to be no real agreement as to what "Will to Power" is in Nietzsche's philosophy. Heidegger states it is the essentia of beings in Nietzsche's metaphysics, taking Nietzsche to be the one initiating the commencement of metaphysics by introducing a metaphysical concept that is based in valuative thought, i.e. will to power is the will to create value and bestow meaning upon the world. And by doing so, negating all past meta-narratives done by previous philosophers as being just another mode of will to power. Other philosophers do not take "Will to Power" as seriously and consider it a brief footnote in Nietzsche that was aborted and not systematically thought out.
Nietzsche, does talk about Will to Power in the Nachlass notes in some detail, but should we take these notes seriously since he abandoned his project of his so calle ... (read more)Latest replies:
- Jason Streitfeld, 2010-03-01 : I don't think the Will to Power can be dismissed as a footnote in Nietzsche's thought. Not unless we dismi... (read more)
- Paul Catanu, 2010-06-23 : I, for one, do not think that the will to power is Nietzsche's fundamental me I think that the eternal recurrence of... (read more)
- David Westling, 2016-07-29 : For me, Nietzsche's Will To Power is personal endeavor as divested of all traditional notions of morality. Mor... (read more)
I will be writing a paper on Hegel and I was wondering maybe someone could share their thought about:
- what ideas of Hegel have been refuted?
- what do you find most interesting in his philosophy ?
- and is it a good idea to strugle with Hegel?
- Joachim Stoltz, 2009-12-22 : Almost everything from Hegel has been criticised at one moment or another, and almost everything has been vindicated. Ho... (read more)
- Robert M. Wallace, 2010-01-11 : People who are interested in the connection that Glenn Magee draws between Hegel and occultism should look at my detaile... (read more)
- Gary Geck, 2010-07-22 : Bob Wallace, I am humbled by your analysis. And I am glad that your bring up Hegel’s Lectures on the History of Philosop... (read more)
- Robert M. Wallace, 2010-07-22 : Thanks for your flattering comment. Of course I encourage anyone who shares my interest in the tradition of philosophica... (read more)
- James Jarnet, 2014-03-23 : I believe the most fascinating thing about Hegel’s system is the way he uses the dialectic in order to interpret... (read more)
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2009-08-11That's an interesting myth-busting. However, the subject might gain from a deeper discussion. I don't really understand what Hegel's rhetoric would be in such a context: why does he even take the Timaeus' series, and why the change in it? If he's not happy with aprioristic thinking, why does he use it? Is it a form of sarcasm, or a reductio ad absurdum?
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