Commentary
Exploring Meinong’s Jungle and Beyond: an
Investigation of Noneism and the Theory of Items
by R. Routley
Canberra: Australian National University, 1979
Michele Paolini Paoletti †
michele.paolinip@gmail.com
Richard Routley’s Exploring Meinong’s Jungle and Beyond is perhaps the most
comprehensive and representative work in Neo-Meinongianism. It covers
several topics: theory of items,1 ontology, logics, aesthetics, theory of
knowledge, philosophy of mathematics, philosophy of time. Routley aims at
presenting a Meinong-inspired theory of items and at showing the advantages
of such a theory within several fields. This book includes some articles
published from the ‘60s and it partly inspired modal Neo-Meinongianism, even
though Routley seems to accept the property-centered Neo-Meinongianism
(see the Foreword).
I cannot give here an exhaustive account of Routley’s whole investigation of
noneism (i.e., the theory according to which, roughly, there are items that do
not exist, or, in other words, that not all the items exist). Considering the
structure of the book, it is possible to individuate: a brief presentation and
defense of noneist theses (pp. 1–73); a critique of classical logic and the
introduction of a revised, neutral (i.e., not existentially committed) logic
grounded on the theory of items (this long part includes, among other things,
some important remarks on the Characterisation Postulate, on identity,
existence, possible worlds, inconsistency, definite descriptions, intensional
contexts) (pp. 73–360); a defense of a Meinongian and presentist
metaphysical theory of time (pp. 361–409); some replies to Quine’s article On
what there is (in the short paper On what there isn’t) and to other objections
†
University of Macerata, Italy.
I shall use Routley’s term “item” instead of “object”, in order to respect the author’s terminology
and to clarify that even properties, states of affairs, facts, and so on, can be considered items, even if
they are not ordinary existent or non-existent objects.
1
Humana.Mente Journal of Philosophical Studies, 2013, Vol. 25, 275-292
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(pp. 411–488); the contiguity between noneism and common sense (pp. 519–
536); noneist theories of fiction (pp. 537–606), of existence (pp. 697–768),
of mathematical and theoretical knowledge (pp. 769–832) and of other topics
(e.g., universals and perception) (pp. 607–696); Routley’s interpretation of
Meinong’s work (pp. 489–518) and the differences between Routley’s
noneism and other theories of items (pp. 833–890); the paper Ultralogic as
universal in the Appendix (pp. 892–959).
In this brief commentary, I shall focus on Routley’s denial of the
Ontological Assumption and on some theses, such as the Characterisation
Postulate and the distinction between characterising and non-characterising
properties. Furthermore, I shall present and discuss Routley’s Meinongian
Presentism and his theory of fictional items.
1. A Dialogue between a Noneist and an Actualist
In his review of Routley’s book2, W. J. Rapaport finds out four different
formulations of the Ontological Assumption:
(OA1) no (genuine) statements about what does not exist are true (p. 22);
(OA2) a non-denoting expression cannot be the proper (i.e., logical,
according to Rapaport) subject of a true statement (p. 22);
(OA3) nonentities are featureless, only what exists can truly have
properties (p. 22);
(OA4) it is not true that nonentities ever have properties (p. 23).
It seems to me legitimate to summarize the idea behind the Ontological
Assumption as follows:
(actualism) there are no items that do not exist, i.e., every item exists.
The thesis (actualism) is accepted by many philosophers and it implies, among
other things, that statements about what does not exist are literally false (OA1),
that they should be paraphrased in order to reveal the propositions that they
express (or the facts that make them true), so that non-existent items are not
their proper logical subjects (or non-existent objects are not involved in their
truth conditions) (OA2), that non-existent items cannot instantiate properties,
2
See (Rapaport, 1984). For other interesting critical commentaries of Routley’s work, see (Griffin,
1982), (Parsons, 1983), (Jacquette, 1996a).
Exploring Meinong’s Jungle and Beyond
277
since they are not items at all (OA3–OA4). One of the major consequences of
the acceptance of (actualism) (or, in Routley’s terms, of the Ontological
Assumption) is the acceptance of the framework defined by the Reference
Theory, according to which «all (primary) truth-valued discourse is referential»
(p. 52), where the adjective “referential” implies a restriction of reference only
to existing items.
One could argue against the truth of (actualism) in several ways. Routley
considers many seemingly true statements that seem to imply that we can refer
to non-existent items:
(1) Sherlock Holmes is a detective;
(2) Sherlock Holmes is more beloved than Moriarty;
(3) Sherlock Holmes is taller than Frodo Baggins;
and so on. Routley argues to a large extent that, even if such statements can be
paraphrased into other true statements that do not involve any reference to
nonentities, such paraphrases (i) do not preserve the meanings of the original
statements; (ii) even if they preserve their meanings, they do not always
preserve their truth-conditions and truth-values. It seems to me legitimate to
add that (iii) such paraphrases, even if they do preserve the meanings and the
truth-conditions and truth-values of the original statements, are required only
if we accept (actualism). Yet, why do we have to accept (actualism)?
Routley’s strategy against (actualism) consists in showing that, if we accept
(actualism), then we run into serious difficulties, which I have summarized as
(i) and (ii). However, it seems to me that, if we want to provide an adequate
defense of noneism, we should first consider the problem of the truth of
(actualism). In turn, if we wish to consider such a problem, we should provide a
terminology that is acceptable for both actualists and noneists.
For example, D. Lewis argues that Routley is not a noneist (i.e., someone
who accepts that there are items that do not exist), but that he is an allist (i.e.,
someone who accepts that there are/exist more items than the ones commonly
accepted as existent, that there are/exist some existentially controversial
items)3. In Lewis’ perspective, Routley does not deny (actualism), but simply
claims that there exist round squares, fictional objects, and so on. Yet, Routley
would obviously not accept this interpretation of his noneism. In fact, it is true
for Routley that
3
See (Lewis, 1990).
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(non-actualism) there are items that do not exist.
How should Lewis and Routley define their disagreement? Routley
introduces two neutral quantifiers (a particular and a universal one) that are not
existentially committing (pp. 79–83). Thus, it is legitimate for him to
distinguish between the neutral particular quantifier “there is n” and the
existentially loaded quantifier “there is e”. If we use neutral quantifiers, we can
claim that, since it is true that (1), then it is true that
(1n) there isn an item, such that it is identical with Sherlock Holmes and it is
a detective,
while it is false that
(1e) there ise an item, such that is identical with Sherlock Holmes and it is a
detective,
since it is true that
(4) Sherlock Holmes does not exist.
So far, so good. Yet, Lewis could reply that what he means by “there is” when
he accepts (actualism) is the same as what he means by “exists” and that,
furthermore, it is the same as what is expressed by the neutral quantifier. In
sum, Lewis could introduce a property P (perhaps, a non-natural property) that
is instantiated by all the items over which it is legitimate to quantify in a neutral
way and he could call such a property “existence”. Thus, it would turn out that
Routley is not a noneist. It would be true for Lewis that
(actualism-1) there aren no items that do not have P
and it would be true for Routley too. Actualists win. Yet, is this the end of the
story? I do not think. Noneists could reply that it is not legitimate to introduce
such a property, i.e., that there is no property such as P. They could invoke the
Characterisation Postulate (see below), according to which items have all and
only their characterising properties, and they could argue that P is not a
characterising property. However, actualists could reply that P should be
considered a non-characterising property, which is nevertheless instantiated by
every item. P could be necessarily coextensive with the non-characterising
property of being an item, which is instantiated by all items. There are n no
items that are not items. If there are contradictory items that are not items (i.e.,
Exploring Meinong’s Jungle and Beyond
279
that have within their characterising properties the negative property of being a
non-item), they nevertheless have the non-characterising property of being an
item. Since P is necessarily coextensive with the non-characterising property of
being an item, they have P too. What could noneists reply? They cannot reply
that, even if P is necessarily coextensive with the property of being an item,
there are items (e.g., impossible ones) that do not obey such a law of necessary
coextension, so that they do not have P, even if they are items. In fact, actualists
could introduce a further non-characterising property P*, that both such latter
items and the former items have (e.g., the property of being an item that obeys
the law of necessary coextension of the non-characterising property P and the
non-characterising property of being an item or that does not obey it), and they
could call it “existence”.
On the other hand, noneists could argue that it is not legitimate to
introduce whatever non-characterising property one can conceive of. Yet, I do
not see any reason for accepting such a thesis. In fact, if properties are items,
why cannot we claim that there is a property, such as the property P*, that has
the characterising (second-order) property of being the non-characterising
property of being at item that obeys, etc.? In order to deny such a conclusion,
we should deny that properties are items or that they are items for which the
Characterisation Postulate holds or we should affirm that it is not possible to
introduce non-characterising properties in such a way. However, I do not see
any good argument to support such replies. If, after this discussion, actualists
are right, then it is true that
(actualism-2) there aren no items that do not have P*.
This strategy is a really powerful one. However, I think that noneists could
reply that, even if (actualism-2) is true, actualists’ P*-existence is not what is
part of the truth-conditions of
(5)
Obama exists.
Let me recall the Quinean paraphrase of (5):
(5Quine) there is an item that obamizes (i.e., that is identical with Obama)4.
4
See (Quine, 1948).
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More generally, at least according to an ontology inspired by Quine’s
paraphrase, whenever we truly claim that something exists, as in (5), our
statement is made true by the fact that there is something that has the property
of being identical with that thing. Existence is not simply the property of being
identical with i (where i is a variable ranging over items), but it is a property of
that property. In fact, if now turn to true singular negative existentials about
something (i.e., to statements which truly deny the existence of something,
which have the form of the negation of statements such as (5)), it seems that
they are made true by the fact that there is nothing that has the property of
being identical with that thing, i.e., that the property of being identical with
that thing is not instantiated. Otherwise, true negative existentials would be
false or meaningless. Thus, according to this ontology, existence turns out to
be a higher-order property: it is the property of being instantiated, which is
instantiated by the property of being identical with i. Let me call such a
property P**. If actualists are right (i.e., if every item exists) and if actualists’
existence P* is identical with P**, then actualists run into serious difficulties.
In fact, there are items that are not properties (so that they do not have P**),
even if, following (actualism-2), they have P*. Thus, since it is a necessary
condition for two properties to be identical that they are necessarily
coextensive, P** is not identical with P*. Noneists (partly) win. On the one
hand, it could be legitimate to introduce a property P* that is instantiated by
anything. Yet, on the other hand, that property is not part of the truthconditions of true ordinary singular negative existentials (and of true positive
ones). This problem affects every actualist who wishes to maintain that
everything exists and that there are true singular negative existentials (or at
least true paraphrases of seemingly true singular negative existentials). Yet,
actualists could reply that we cannot introduce P** into our ontology. Why? I
do not see any valid reason to deny that there are properties such as P**.
Perhaps, it is not a natural property. Yet, if P* is not a natural property and it is
acceptable, why cannot we accept P** too? On the other hand, if the
existential actualist quantifier did not express a property, how could we make
(actualism) intelligible?
2. Characterising Noneism
Routley’s noneism is grounded on eight Meinong-inspired theses (see
pp. 2–3):
Exploring Meinong’s Jungle and Beyond
281
(M1) everything whatever is an object (or an item);
(M2) very many items do not exist and in many cases they do not have any
form of being;
(M3) nonentities are constituted in one way or another, thus they have
properties;
(M3*) properties can be subdivided into characterising and noncharacterising;
(M4) existence (as well as many other ontological properties) is a noncharacterising property;
(M5) every item has the characteristics it has irrespective of whether it
exists or not (or of whether or not it has any other ontological status);
(M6) an item has the characterising properties used to characterise it;
(M7) important quantifiers of common occurrence in natural language
neither conform to the existence nor to the identity and enumeration
requirements imposed by classical logicians.
Furthermore, Routley accepts other theses that seem to be implied by the truth
of (M1)–(M7):
(significance) «very many sentences the subjects of which refer to
nonentities (…) are significant» and «the significance of sentences
whose subjects are about (or purport to be about) singular items is
independent of the existence, or possibility, of the items they are
about» (p. 14);
(content) «many different sorts of statements about non-existent items,
including many of those yielded by single subject-predicate sentences,
are truth-valued, i.e., have truth-values true or false. Hence, in
particular, many declarative sentences containing subjects which are
about nonentities yield statements in their contexts. More generally,
many sentences about nonentities have content-values in their
contexts»(p.14);
(basic-independence) «that an item has properties need not, and
commonly does not, imply, or presuppose, that it exists or has being» (p.
24);
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(advanced-independence) «nonentities can (and commonly do) have a
more or less determinate nature» (p. 24)
and the Characterisation Postulate, according to which
(char.post.) «nonentities have their characterising properties» (p. 24).
Finally, we should add one further thesis, concerning the nature of
negation (see pp. 88–89):
(double-neg.) considering all items, propositional negation (e.g., it is
not the case that Sherlock Holmes is a detective) is neither identical
with, nor equivalent to predicate negation (e.g., Sherlock Holmes is a
non-detective).
I cannot dwell here on each thesis. Let me only consider the distinction
between characterising and non-characterising properties. Characterising
properties are the ones that can be assumed to characterise an item, according
to (char.post.). On the other hand, non-characterising properties cannot be
assumed and are somehow “external” to an item. This distinction was
suggested by one of Meinong’s pupils, E. Mally, in order to deal with the
famous Russellian paradox of the existent golden mountain, that both exists
(since the property of existence is one of its characterising properties) and
does not exist (since there exists no golden mountain in the actual world)5. In
brief, according to this solution, the existent golden mountain does not exist
(since existence is a non-characterising property), even if some property of
existing* (some watered-down property of existing, in T. Parsons’ terms 6) can
be considered a characterising property of some items or even if, in order to
constitute an item, we are only allowed to consider its characterising properties
(as it is claimed by Routley).
Yet, one of the major problems of such a distinction is that there is no clear
criterion to distinguish characterising from non-characterising properties.
This is true only in part. It is true that Routley considers at least five classes of
non-characterising properties (or, better, in his terms, of non-characterising
predicates, since the use of the term “properties” seems to imply for him the
existence of such items): ontic, logical, intensional, evaluative, theoretical ones
5
6
See (Russell, 1973, p. 80–81), and (Russell, 2003, p. 81–84).
See (Parsons, 1980). For a critical commentary of Parsons’ work, see (Fine, 1984).
Exploring Meinong’s Jungle and Beyond
283
(see p. 266). T. Parsons makes a similar distinction 7. However, Routley claims
that non-characterising properties, such as existence, seem to be logically
supervenient on characterising ones: «items which exist are fully determinate
in all extensional respect» and «this full determinacy can be explicated logically
in terms of the coincidence of sentence and predicate negation» (p.244). In
fact, recalling the distinction between propositional and predicate negation, he
adds that
(existence) by definition, an item exists = for every extensional property
P, it is necessary that, if that item has non-P, then it is not true that it has
P and it is contingently true that, if it is not true that it has P, then it has
non-P (see p. 244).
According to D. Jacquette, non-characterising properties can be defined in
purely logical terms: he claims that some property P is nuclear (or
characteristic) iff it is not true that, for every item that instantiates it, that item
does not have P iff it has non-P. On the other hand, according to Jacquette,
some property P is extra-nuclear (or non-characteristic) iff it is true that, for
every item that instantiates it, that item does not have P iff it has non-P8.
Yet, it seems reasonable to assume that it is true, at least according to
Conan Doyle’s stories, that
(6) Sherlock Holmes exists,
even though it is also true that (4), i.e., that he does not exist. How should we
deal with the paradox that Sherlock Holmes exists and does not exist in
Routley’s perspective? As we will see, Routley maintains that only
characterising properties constitute fictional objects. He does not introduce
any watered-down property of existing. Thus, Sherlock Holmes simply does
not exist, i.e., he does not have the non-characterising property of existing.
Yet, what does it make it true that (6), according to Conan Doyle’s stories, if
neither existence, nor watered-down existence* constitute Sherlock Holmes
as an item? Routley talks of “full objects”, in order to maintain that fictional
items such as Sherlock Holmes do not only have characterising features that
are ascribed to them by their stories, but also some non-characterising features
that are ascribed by the same stories (perhaps existence too) (see pp. 596–
7
8
See, for example, (Parsons, 1980, p. 42–44 and p. 52–57).
See (Jacquette, 1996b, pp. 114–116).
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597). Yet, it is worth asking: is Sherlock Holmes as a full object identical with
or distinct from Sherlock Holmes as a non-full object? If they are distinct, then
it is not true that (6), at least with regard to Sherlock Holmes as a non-full
object. If they are identical, then we should change Routley’s criterion of
identity for fictional items (see below).
3. Being Sherlock – with a Little Help from his Source
According to Routley, fictional items are not reducible to other kinds of items
(e.g., properties, propositions, and so on): they are nonentities, i.e., nonexistent items (see p. 538). Fiction is an «authored discourse or
communication which consists of imagined or invented statements or
narrative, which conveys a story as contrasted with factual or reportative
discourse» (p. 539). It is not properly true that fictional objects “live” in
stories: stories depict fictional worlds, i.e., classes of statements that hold
according to stories (see p. 540), and fictional worlds are not possible worlds
(they are sometimes logically inconsistent and physically impossible and always
incomplete) (see p. 545). Fictional worlds do not only comprehend what is
explicitly determined as true within stories: it is legitimate to add to these
worlds, by principles of material elaboration and formal closure, other truths
(e.g., it is legitimate to claim that the statement “London is near to Oxford” is
true within Sherlock Holmes’ fictional world). Yet, since there is no uniform
logic of fiction (inconsistency and incompleteness hold or might hold in
fictional worlds) and since some material elaborations are useless in order to
comprehend works of fiction, it seems unavoidable to restrict such additions.
After having defined fiction and fictional worlds, it is now time to define
fictional characters. Routley explores several criteria for fictional items’
individuation. He accepts the following one:
(fic.char.) a fictional item d has just those characterising features its
source S(d) ascribes to it (see p. 576).
A fictional item has some work of fiction as its source iff it is native to that
work, i.e., it is “created” within that work (see p. 573). Thus, Sherlock Holmes
has all and only those characterising features its source (i.e., Conan Doyle’s
stories) attributes to him. However, Routley’s account immediately has to face
at least one problem. If there were two fictional characters with all and only the
same characterising features their sources attribute to them but with different
Exploring Meinong’s Jungle and Beyond
285
sources, would they be identical or not?9 For example: if some author different
from Conan Doyle had written stories that are completely similar to Conan
Doyle’s stories (without having read such stories) and if he had “created” some
fictional item e with all and only Sherlock Holmes’ characterising features,
would that item be identical with or distinct from Sherlock Holmes? Following
Routley’s criterion, it seems that it would be identical with Sherlock Holmes.
Yet, let me assume that Sherlock Holmes and e respectively have S1 (Conan
Doyle’s stories) and S2 as their sources. This argument shows that Sherlock
Holmes and e turn out to be both identical with and distinct from one another:
(a) Sherlock Holmes has the non-characterising property of having S1 as
its source;
(b) e has the non-characterising property of having S2 as its source;
(c) if e has the non-characterising property of having S2 as its source, then
it does not have the non-characterising property of having S1 as its
source10;
(d) for any two fictional items, they are identical iff they have all and only
the same characterising features ascribed to them by their respective
sources;
(e) Sherlock Holmes and e have all and only the same characterising
features ascribed to them by their sources;
(f) for any two items, if they are identical, then, for every property, the
former item has that property iff the latter item has it too
(indiscernibility of identical);
(g) (from (b) and (c), by MP) e does not have the non-characterising
property of having S1 as its source;
(h) (from (a), (f) and (g)) Sherlock Holmes and e are not identical;
(i) (from (d) and (e)) Sherlock Holmes and e are identical;
(j) (from (h) and (i)) Sherlock Holmes and e are both identical and not
identical.
How can a Meinongian deal with this argument? At first, one could notice
that it is quite implausible that (e) obtains. Yet, it is only implausible: it is not
9
This case is somehow similar to Pierre Menard’s Don Quixote’s case. See (Sainsbury, 2010, p. 74).
One could argue that one and the same story-type is produced by Conan Doyle and the other
author, even though they produce two different tokens of it. However, the same problem could arise
with regard to story-tokens: Sherlock Holmes and e would have different non-characterising
properties with regard to their story-tokens.
10
See (Fine, 1984, pp. 103–104).
10
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impossible and, if a criterion of identity for fictional items should be given in
modal terms, it has to deal with such a possibility. Secondly, one could accept
the argument and its conclusion, by claiming that there are true
inconsistencies. Yet, I think that it would be better to question the premises or
the general validity of the argument, before claiming that there are true
inconsistencies (at least in the actual world). Thirdly, it is possible to weaken
(d) by claiming that (d) is a true criterion of identity for most fictional items,
even if it is sometimes not determined whether two fictional items are identical
or not. Yet, I think that it would be better to exclude such cases of
undetermined identity.
Are there ways to avoid (j)? Perhaps, one could try to change (a) and (b), by
denying that there are such specific non-characterising properties as the
property of having S1 as its source. In fact, these non-characterising properties
are not logically supervenient on their characterising properties: it is only a
matter of fact that S1 is Sherlock Holmes’ source. Yet, this implies that we have
to give some reason to exclude that there are such non-characterising
properties instantiated by items or it implies that we have to change our
criterion to distinguish characterising from non-characterising properties,
since there are (at least in this case) non-characterising properties that are not
logically supervenient on characterising ones. On the other hand, if we deny
(c), we have to admit that some fictional items can have more than one source
and this seems to be rejected by Routley. We could try with (e), by claiming
that it is not true that Sherlock Holmes and e have all and only the same
characterising properties. In fact, as it could be argued accepting Parsons’
watered-down properties, Sherlock Holmes has the watered-down
characterising property of having S1 as its source*, that is not had by e, while e
has the watered-down characterising property of having S2 as its source*, that
is not had by Sherlock Holmes. However, since such watered-down
characterising properties are neither explicitly, nor implicitly ascribed to
fictional items by their sources (it is not claimed within Conan Doyle’s stories
that Sherlock Holmes has those stories as his source and nothing seems to
involve it), criterion (d) needs to be changed. Finally, one could try to restrict
(f) to characterising properties. However, this solution seems to be highly
counterintuitive: if two items are identical, then one might expect that they
share all and only the same properties. In sum, at least according to my
perspective, we should change (d), i.e., Routley’s criterion to identify two
fictional items.
Exploring Meinong’s Jungle and Beyond
287
A similar problem arises with two fictional items that have the same story as
their source and that are indistinguishable with regard to their characterizing
properties11. If one does not postulate that there is some kind of bare
numerical distinction between fictional items, how can we avoid to identify
them, given (d)?
Furthermore, there is another problem. Let me consider the following
statement:
(7) Conan Doyle’s Sherlock Holmes is identical with Sherlock’s Sherlock
Holmes,
where Sherlock is a recent TV show whose major character is a detective
named Sherlock Holmes, who lives in the 21st Century London, who has a
friend named John Watson and who has adventures that are somehow similar to
the ones narrated by Conan Doyle. Is it true that (7)? It is implied by the TV
show that Sherlock Holmes did not live in the 19th Century, so that they do not
seem to be identical. Yet, one could try to use the distinction between native
and immigrant characters in order to deal with (7): it is perhaps the case that
Sherlock’s Sherlock Holmes is the same fictional character as Conan Doyle’s
Sherlock Holmes, since he migrates from Conan Doyle’s stories to that TV
show (he is not “created” within that TV show). However, if we consider (d)
and if we accept that such fictional characters are identical, Sherlock’s
Sherlock Holmes (the immigrant Sherlock Holmes) does not acquire any
characterising property attributed to him by Sherlock, since Sherlock is not his
source. Thus, how does Sherlock Holmes have the properties attributed to him
within Sherlock? I do not know. Perhaps both Conan Doyle’s Sherlock Holmes
and Sherlock’s Sherlock Holmes are part of one more comprehensive transfictional Sherlock Holmes. Yet, first, this latter Sherlock Holmes would have
inconsistent characterising properties, such as the properties of living in the
19th Century and of not living in the 19th Century. Secondly, he would be
different both from Sherlock’s Sherlock Holmes and from Conan Doyle’s one.
There is a vast critical literature on this problem12.
I cannot examine here other theses of Routley’s concerning fictional items
(see, for example, with regard to relational puzzles, pp. 577–588).
11
12
See (Fine, 1984, pp. 103–104).
See, for example, (Voltolini, 2006).
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Furthermore, there are other problems connected with his account, in
particular with regard to the definition of fictional characters’ “creation”13.
However, as I have tried to argue (and as other authors have already argued
following different strategies14), if we accept (d), we run into several
difficulties.
4. The Difficulty of Not Existing Now
Routley defends a version of Meinongian Presentism according to which
(mein.presentism) whatever exists exists now and there are items that do
not exist (i.e., that do not exist now).
This does not exclude that there are merely past or merely future items, that
have properties and that are distinct from one another. Furthermore, Routley
deals with many problems concerning diachronic identity, substantial change,
the definition of Prior’s operators, of times and of the nature of time (see pp.
368–409). However, it is worth considering here his justification of
(mein.presentism).
According to Routley, noneist presentists do not have any difficulty in
grounding the truth of many statements about merely future and merely past
items, even if they do not consider such items existent. On the other hand,
actualist presentists are in trouble when they have to ground the truth of
statements such as
(8) Aristotle was born in Stagira.
This happens because they are both committed to
(presentism) whatever exists exists now,
and to
(actualism) there are no items that do not exist,
so that they accept a version of presentism according to which
(act.presentism) there are no items that do not exist now.
13
See the so-called “selection problem” in (Sainsbury, 2010, pp. 57–63).
See, for example, (Orilia, 20052, pp. 161–167), (Voltolini, 2006, pp. 3–36), and (Berto, 2012,
pp. 125–128).
14
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289
On the other hand, if (8) is truly about Aristotle, it turns out that
(8a) there is an item that does not exist now, that is identical with
Aristotle and that was born in Stagira.
This contradicts (act. presentism), according to which there are no items that
do not exist now. Thus, Meinongian Presentism seems to work better than
Actualist Presentism, at least if we wish to maintain that (8) is truly about
Aristotle. However, according to Routley, the acceptance of Meinongian
Presentism implies a revision of temporal logic and, more generally, of classical
logic, in order to avoid its commitment to the Ontological Assumption and to
the Reference Theory.
How could an Actualist Presentist reply to Routley? It is possible to follow
different strategies that are characterisable as follows:
(a.p.1) (8) is not truly about Aristotle, but about something else that
exists now;
(a.p.2) even though Aristotle does not exist now, he has some tenseless
existence that is expressed by the quantifier “there is” in (8a),
since he existed, so that it is now true that Aristotle existed and
that he was born in Stagira;
(a.p.3) even though it is not now true that (8a) (since Aristotle does not
exist now), it is true that (8), since it was true that Aristotle exists
and that he has the property of being born in Stagira.
These are only examples of strategies connected with (act. presentism). Such
strategies could commit to the existence (now) of entities different from
Aristotle that make it true that (8) or they could imply that there are two kinds
of existence. However, Meinongian Presentism has at least one advantage: by
affirming that there is now an item such as Aristotle, even if he does not exist
now (so that he does not exist at all), it can avoid such complications.
Yet, if we accept the following equivalence concerning existence (and
existence now):
(existence-1) for every item, that item exists (and exists now) iff, for any
extensional property P, it has non-P iff it is not the case that it
has P (see p. 362),
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Humana.Mente – Issue 25 – December 2013
it turns out that merely past and merely future items are indeterminate with
regard to at least one extensional property. Namely, as Routley claims, it is not
the case that Aristotle (that is a purely past item) has the property of having
present baldness, but it is not the case that he has the property of not having
present baldness, so that Aristotle is undetermined with regard to the
extensional property of having present baldness. However, Routley maintains
that an item is negation-indeterminate with regard to some extensional
property P iff it both has P and non-P (see p. 362). Thus, it seems to me that
there are two ways in which a merely past or a merely future item does not exist:
(indeterminate-1) for every item, that item is indeterminate-1 iff, for some
extensional property P, it is not the case that it has P and
it is not the case that it has non-P;
(indeterminate-2) for every item, that item is indeterminate-2 iff, for some
extensional property P, it is both the case that it has P
and that it has non-P.
These two definitions of indetermination (even if (indeterminate-2) actually
seems to be a definition of overdetermination) are not equivalent. Thus, one
could ask: under which respect can a merely past or merely future item be
indeterminate? Finally, one might introduce one further case of
indetermination:
(indeterminate-3) for every item, that item is indeterminate-3 iff it is
indeterminate-1 or indeterminate-2.
Let me now consider Aristotle and the property of having present baldness.
Aristotle is indeterminate-1 with regard to this property, at least according to
Routley. In fact, it is not the case that Aristotle has the property of not having
present baldness and it is not the case that he has the property of having
present baldness. Yet, it does not seem to be true that Aristotle does not have
the property of not having present baldness! In fact, he does not have that
property only if we presuppose – as Routley does – that he does not exist, i.e.,
that he does not exist now, following (existence-1). However, it seems
acceptable to argue that, if Aristotle does not have the property of having
present baldness, he has the negative property of not having present baldness:
he does not exist now and he is not now bald! Routley accepts that
(non-ex.) nonentities are indeterminate-1, since they do not exist.
Exploring Meinong’s Jungle and Beyond
291
Yet, is there any reason to accept (non-ex.), since Aristotle seems not to be
now bald?
Provided our second definition of indetermination, it is possible to reply
that Aristotle is indeterminate-2. Yet, at least with regard to the property of
having present baldness, it does not seem that he has it. If we do not want to
consider him an inconsistent item, it should be conceded that he does not have
that property, so that he is not indeterminate-2 with regard to that property,
and it seems that there is no tensed extensional property (i.e., no property such
as the one of presently having baldness, or of having had baldness, or of going
to have baldness) and no other kind of property for which he is indeterminate2. Since Aristotle is neither indeterminate-1, nor indeterminate-2, he is not
indeterminate-3.
In sum, it seems to me that, given (existence-1), it is not possible to justify
the thesis that a merely past item does not exist, so that it does not exist now 15.
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15
Different attempts to defend Meinongian Presentism (or, better, some version of Presentism that
accepts that there are objects that do not exist and that do not exist now, even not accepting some
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