Classical Quarterly 47 (02):452- (1997)
In his Rhetoric Aristotle gives six definitions of emotions in approximately the following form, with the word . Does he mean ‘Let anger be a reaching-out, accompanied by pain, for conspicuous revenge for some conspicuous slight to oneself or one's own, the slight not having been deserved’, or should αινομένηςίην be taken to mean ‘manifest, plain’, or should it be translated ‘perceived, apparent’? Since this is his fullest definition of anger, the question deserves discussion, even though a number of scholars, including such an expert on Aristotle's philosophy of the emotions as W. W. Fortenbaugh, have previously answered the question in what I think is the right way
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