Abstract

There is a perplexing sentence in Rh. III 2, 1404b37–1405a2, which seems to imply that technical terms synōnyma and, by analogy, homōnyma are used differently in different contexts, i.e. in the Rhetoric these terms pertain to words, but in the Categories they designate things. Thus, it creates the impression that Aristotle has changed his mind with respect to the meaning of these terms. The interpretation, which is offered by the majority of translators and commentators, appears to embrace this conclusion. It is reinforced by the entry on synōnymos in the Greek-English Lexicon. The aim of the article is to explain the perplexing sentence in such a way that it is compatible with the definitions of synōnyma and homōnyma given in the Categories.